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I respectfully disagree.
Science is able to be peer reviewed and results replicated reliably. No matter how many times you mix 1 mol of HCl with 1 mol of NaOH you will always get the same results if you control the other factors.
This is the problem with purist "more of the same" induction, your saying "I've done X and gotten Y lots of times in the past so I MUST get it next time!"
Unfortunatly this isn't a gurantee if we see chemical A with property X have Y effect 90x, can we be sure that Chemical B with property X will have effect Y.
No, infact we have no coherent basis to say that just becuase we have observed one thing follow another thing for a long period of time, that it will always be like this in the world!
Further more, "more of the same" reasoning can't get you theory, it can get you equations, but not theory.
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Now don't get me wrong, I also think there are area's of biology I wouldn't class as science but your example of DNA simply isn't true. DNA is very well documented to be the whole reason for variation in life - the discussion comes about how very similar DNA produces very different results (transcription factors etc). But lets not go off topic.
http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/3833/1/ ... eprint.pdf
The guy who wrote the article also has a history within genetics. The problem isn't DNA not being well documented, its that we've focused on ONE factor within biology, when in fact there are other area's that we can approach it from. Infact since this article was published movements in biology have started exploring these other routes!
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You also mentioned about medicine - again, a lot of medicine is theory rather than hard evidence of something happening and therefore a conclusion being drawn from it. An example may be high blood pressures link to heart attacks and strokes - this theory is from literally thousands of individual pieces of data where their own specific circumstances can be discounted due to a massive overall trend. Again though, its just a "more likely" rather than a "this is" argument - in most conventional science (physics, chemistry) there are no "this increases the chance" - it is all quantitative data.
Sure, there are things in psychology that draw on statistical data to draw conclusions - but nothing to the degree of "real" science simply because the same groups and controlled variables are not extensive enough.
Don't mistake my argument as psychology is pointless - it still gives theories that are useful but ultimately they are probabilities of things happening rather than facts.
Isn't that as true about Medicine as psychology? I'm asking becuase psychological research methods are almost identical to those used in medicince. I don't think human anatomy has any less variables than human psyche.
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A prime example is if you put £50 on a table and observe who takes it, who leaves it etc. You simply cannot get viable data to make a judgement about what makes people take it - the only thing you can say with any degree of accuracy is the percentage of people who took it was X - but again, you need a very large sample group. The problem I have with the subject is I have seen far to much which seems to draw too much from too little evidence.
You wouldn't attempt to say "Why" someone takes it, that experiment is only capable of measuring who takes it, how quickly and possibly in what enviroments and times is it taken more often.
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A true scientific experiment (which is needed to support a theory to make it at all credible) required you to only have only one factor change. With psychology, there are simply too many factors that influence results for any of the data on anything short of a very large sample group to be near pointless.
You can get one factor change, in very much the same way you get one factor change in medicine.
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Going back to my leaving money to see who takes it - leave £50 on a table at an upper class mansion will get a much different result to leaving it on a table in a third world country. But even then look at all the factors - do the people in the third world country even know what £50 is? do the upper class assume its theirs rather than see it as stealing? The only way to test those factors is to ask the individuals what they thought - and really, using an individuals descriptive ability is hardly credible when you look at the massive amounts of examples where people forget simple things like tie colour of someone talking to them.
I don't think you quite understand how psychology experiments are run, or how theories are formed.. I don't even think you understand what psychological theories seek to achieve!
Care to give a real world example?
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To summarise my argument:
Chemistry - 1 mol of X with 1 mol of Y will always make 1 mol of Z
Psychology - it seems more likely that X with Y will make Z but X and Y are always slightly different so its probably right but it could be that X had already been exposed to AB and C where as 20% of the time X just ignored Y.... you get the point.
EDIT: If you say ANYTHING about quantum physics or something like that I will slap you

That shit is just weird and nobody has a clue really.
Summary in return.
Chemistry- That reasoning doesn't provide theory, only trend spotting, not enough to create any pragmatic "science" from!
Psychology- mirrors medicine, yet we never question medicine as a science.
Edit: Quantam physics is a perfect example of how we can have probabalistic predictions that are remarkably effective, without having a clue how they work!